An Obscure, Perplexing Biblical Passage
Recently I was scouring the Gospels for evidence as to whether—according to the text—Jesus was truly willing to be crucified, as God (the Father) demanded that Jesus do. I came across this bizarre passage in John 19: 10 Pilate therefore said to him [i.e., Jesus], "Do you refuse to speak to me? Do you not know that I have power to release you, and power to crucify you?" 11 Jesus answered him, "You would have no power over me unless it had been given you from above; therefore the one who handed me over to you is guilty of a greater sin." Let S <–; be Jesus' statement before the semicolon ("You would have no . . . "). Let S ;–> be Jesus' statement after the semicolon ("therefore the one who . . . "). It's quite natural to interpret S <–; as asserting that Pilate only has power to release or crucify Jesus insofar as God allows, or wants, Pilate to do so. But doesn't this mean that, in a certain sense, God handed Jesus ove